4.3. INNER PRODUCT AND NORMED LINEAR SPACES 99

Proof of the Proposition: If x or y equals the zero vector there is nothing to prove.

Therefore, assume they are both nonzero. Let A= (∑ni=1 |xi|p)1/p and B=

(∑

ni=1 |yi|p

′)1/p′

.Then using Lemma 4.3.10,

n

∑i=1

|xi|A|yi|B

≤n

∑i=1

[1p

(|xi|A

)p

+1p′

(|yi|B

)p′]

=1p

1Ap

n

∑i=1|xi|p +

1p′

1Bp

n

∑i=1|yi|p

=1p+

1p′

= 1

and so ∑ni=1 |xi| |yi| ≤ AB = (∑n

i=1 |xi|p)1/p(

∑ni=1 |yi|p

′)1/p′

. ■

Theorem 4.3.11 The p norms do indeed satisfy the axioms of a norm.

Proof: It is obvious that ∥·∥p does indeed satisfy most of the norm axioms. The onlyone that is not clear is the triangle inequality. To save notation write ∥·∥ in place of ∥·∥p inwhat follows. Note also that p

p′ = p−1. Then using the Holder inequality,

∥x+y∥p =n

∑i=1|xi + yi|p ≤

n

∑i=1|xi + yi|p−1 |xi|+

n

∑i=1|xi + yi|p−1 |yi|

=n

∑i=1|xi + yi|

pp′ |xi|+

n

∑i=1|xi + yi|

pp′ |yi|

(n

∑i=1|xi + yi|p

)1/p′( n

∑i=1|xi|p

)1/p

+

(n

∑i=1|yi|p

)1/p

= ∥x+y∥p/p′(∥x∥p +∥y∥p

)so dividing by ∥x+y∥p/p′ , it follows

∥x+y∥p ∥x+y∥−p/p′ = ∥x+y∥ ≤ ∥x∥p +∥y∥p(p− p

p′ = p(

1− 1p′

)= p 1

p = 1.). ■

It only remains to prove Lemma 4.3.10.Proof of the lemma: Let p′ = q to save on notation and consider the following picture:

b

a

x

t

x = t p−1

t = xq−1

4.3. INNER PRODUCT AND NORMED LINEAR SPACES 99Proof of the Proposition: If 2 or y equals the zero vector there is nothing to prove.\/pTherefore, assume they are both nonzero. LetA = (7, lxj[?)1/? and B= ( a iil”) .Then using Lemma 4.3.10,n n P . pya <y Thy" 1 (bilFar A B = /P A p\Blig Liga oy= —7o bil? toa, Lil?par dy p BP11Pp1\ 1/p"1and so Dy [xil|yi| SAB = (DP foil”)? (Ly byl”)Theorem 4.3.11 7he Pp norms do indeed satisfy the axioms of a norm.Proof: It is obvious that ||-||,, does indeed satisfy most of the norm axioms. The onlyone that is not clear is the triangle ane To save notation write ||-|| in place of ||-|),, inwhat follows. Note also that 4 yo Pe 1. Then using the Holder inequality,1Jjatyll? = |x; +yil? <¥ brtyil? hl + br tyil lyili=1 i=1MsllunIIx +yil" lal +) bit yl lyi|i=lh 1/p' h 1/p n 1/p(é ben) (z mt) + (z mt)i=1 i=1 i=l= |je+yll?/”' (lel, +llyll,)llMnIAso dividing by ||a+y||?/” , it followse+ yl? latyl ?” =\e+yll < llell, + llyll,_ PH —t i( £5 =p(1 1) = pt =1.)./It only remains to prove Lemma 4.3.10.Proof of the lemma: Let p’ = q to save on notation and consider the following picture: