13.9. SPHERICAL COORDINATES IN p DIMENSIONS 363

φ 2ρ

(y1,y2,y3,y4)

R3

R

From this picture, you see that y4 = ρ cosφ 2. Also the distance between (y1,y2,y3) and(0,0,0) is ρ sin(φ 2) . Therefore, using polar coordinates to write (y1,y2,y3) in terms ofθ ,φ 1, and this distance,

y1 = ρ sinφ 2 sinφ 1 cosθ ,y2 = ρ sinφ 2 sinφ 1 sinθ ,y3 = ρ sinφ 2 cosφ 1,y4 = ρ cosφ 2

where φ 2 ∈ R and the transformations will be one to one if

φ 2,φ 1 ∈ (0,π) ,θ ∈ (0,2π) ,ρ ∈ (0,∞) .

Continuing this way, given spherical coordinates in Rp, to get the spherical coordinatesin Rp+1, you let yp+1 = ρ cosφ p−1 and then replace every occurance of ρ with ρ sinφ p−1to obtain y1 · · ·yp in terms of φ 1,φ 2, · · · ,φ p−1,θ , and ρ.

It is always the case that ρ measures the distance from the point in Rp to the originin Rp, 0. Each φ i ∈ R and the transformations will be one to one if each φ i ∈ (0,π) , and

θ ∈ (0,2π) . Denote by hp

(ρ, φ⃗ ,θ

)the above transformation.

It can be shown using math induction and geometric reasoning that these coordinatesmap ∏

p−2i=1 (0,π)× (0,2π)× (0,∞) one to one onto an open subset of Rp which is ev-

erything except for the set of measure zero Ψp (N) where N results from having someφ i equal to 0 or π or for ρ = 0 or for θ equal to either 2π or 0. Each of these are setsof Lebesgue measure zero and so their union is also a set of measure zero. You can seethat hp

(∏

p−2i=1 (0,π)× (0,2π)× (0,∞)

)omits the union of the coordinate axes except for

maybe one of them. This is not important to the integral because it is just a set of measurezero.

Theorem 13.9.1 Let y = hp

(⃗φ ,θ ,ρ

)be the spherical coordinate transformations in Rp.

Then letting A = ∏p−2i=1 (0,π)× (0,2π) , it follows h maps A× (0,∞) one to one onto all of

Rp except a set of measure zero given by hp (N) where N is the set of measure zero(Ā× [0,∞)

)\ (A× (0,∞))

Also∣∣∣detDhp

(⃗φ ,θ ,ρ

)∣∣∣ will always be of the form∣∣∣detDhp

(⃗φ ,θ ,ρ

)∣∣∣= ρp−1

Φ

(⃗φ ,θ

). (13.9.20)

13.9. SPHERICAL COORDINATES IN p DIMENSIONS 363R (Y1,¥2,3,¥a)oyR3From this picture, you see that y4 = p cos @5. Also the distance between (1, 2,3) and(0,0,0) is psin(@,). Therefore, using polar coordinates to write (y1,y2,Vy3) in terms of6,0, and this distance,y1 = Psing, sing, cos 8,y2 = psing, sing, sind,y3 = psin$ cos 6),4 = pcos bywhere @, € R and the transformations will be one to one if92,9) € (0,7) ,@ € (0,27) ,p € (0,-).Continuing this way, given spherical coordinates in R?, to get the spherical coordinatesin R?*!, you let Yp+1 = pcos@,_; and then replace every occurance of p with psing,_|to obtain y; --- yp in terms of $,,@,+-- ,@,_1,8, and p.It is always the case that p measures the distance from the point in R? to the originin R?, 0. Each @,; € R and the transformations will be one to one if each ¢; € (0,7), and6 € (0,27). Denote by h, (e. d, ) the above transformation.It can be shown using math induction and geometric reasoning that these coordinatesmap Wey (0,2) x (0,27) x (0,00) one to one onto an open subset of R? which is ev-erything except for the set of measure zero ¥,(N) where N results from having some¢; equal to 0 or z or for p = O or for 8 equal to either 27 or 0. Each of these are setsof Lebesgue measure zero and so their union is also a set of measure zero. You can seethat h, (me (0,7) x (0,22) x (0, <°)) omits the union of the coordinate axes except formaybe one of them. This is not important to the integral because it is just a set of measurezero.Theorem 13.9.1 Let y =h, (6, 6, p) be the spherical coordinate transformations in R?.Then letting A = my (0,2) x (0,27), it follows h maps A x (0,°°) one to one onto all ofIR? except a set of measure zero given by hy (N) where N is the set of measure zero(A x [0,¢)) \ (A x (0,20)Also \detDh, (6. 6.p) | will always be of the form[detDh, (9.6.6)| =p? (5.0) (13.9.20)