278 CHAPTER 11. FUNDAMENTAL TRANSFORMS

Lemma 11.6.2 The following is obtained for all φ ,ψ ∈ G .

Fψ (φ) = ψ (Fφ) ,F−1ψ (φ) = ψ

(F−1

φ)

Also if ψ ∈ G and ψ = 0 in G ∗ so that ψ (φ) = 0 for all φ ∈ G , then ψ = 0 as a function.

Proof:

Fψ (φ) ≡∫Rn

Fψ (t)φ (t)dt =∫Rn

(1

)n/2 ∫Rn

e−it·xψ(x)dxφ (t)dt

=∫Rn

ψ(x)(

12π

)n/2 ∫Rn

e−it·xφ (t)dtdx

=∫Rn

ψ(x)Fφ (x)dx≡ ψ (Fφ)

The other claim is similar.Suppose now ψ (φ) = 0 for all φ ∈ G . Then

∫Rn ψφdx = 0 for all φ ∈ G . Therefore,

this is true for φ = ψ and so ψ = 0. ■This lemma suggests a way to define the Fourier transform of something in G ∗.

Definition 11.6.3 For T ∈ G ∗, define FT,F−1T ∈ G ∗ by

FT (φ)≡ T (Fφ) , F−1T (φ)≡ T(F−1

φ)

Lemma 11.6.4 F and F−1 are both one to one, onto, and are inverses of each other.

Proof: First note F and F−1 are both linear. This follows directly from the definition.Suppose now FT = 0. Then FT (φ) ≡ T (Fφ) = 0 for all φ ∈ G . But F and F−1 map Gonto G because if ψ ∈ G , then as shown above, ψ = F

(F−1 (ψ)

). Therefore, T = 0 and

so F is one to one. Similarly F−1 is one to one. Now F−1 (FT )(φ) ≡ (FT )(F−1φ

)≡

T(F(F−1 (φ)

))= T φ . Therefore, F−1 ◦F (T ) = T. Similarly, F ◦F−1 (T ) = T. Thus both

F and F−1 are one to one and onto and are inverses of each other as suggested by thenotation. ■

Probably the most interesting things in G ∗ are functions of various kinds. The followinglemma will be useful in considering this situation.

Definition 11.6.5 A function f defined on Rn is in L1loc (Rn) if fXB ∈ L1 (Rn) for

every ball B. Such functions are termed locally integrable.

Lemma 11.6.6 If f ∈ L1loc (Rn) and

∫Rn f φdx = 0 for all φ ∈Cc (Rn), then f = 0 a.e.

Proof: Let E be bounded and Lebesgue measurable. By regularity, there exists acompact set Kk ⊆ E and an open set Vk ⊇ E such that mn (Vk \Kk) < 2−k. Let hk equal1 on Kk, vanish on VC

k , and take values between 0 and 1. Then hk converges to XE off∩∞

k=1∪∞l=k (Vl \Kl) , a set of measure zero. Hence, by the dominated convergence theorem,∫

f XEdmn = limk→∞

∫f hkdmn = 0.

278 CHAPTER 11. FUNDAMENTAL TRANSFORMSLemma 11.6.2 The following is obtained for all 6, €G.Fy(¢)=W(F9),F 'y(9)=y(F '9)Also if we GY and y =0 in Y* so that y(¢) =0 for all @ € G, then y = 0 as a function.Proof:[ evnowa=[ (2) Lem veao inaI, w(x) (4), e*%@ (t) dtdx[,, vrowar=v(Fo)Fy()The other claim is similar.Suppose now y(@) = 0 for all @ € Y. Then fen wodx = 0 for all ¢ € Y. Therefore,this is true for ¢ = w and so y=0. @This lemma suggests a way to define the Fourier transform of something in Y*.Definition 11.6.3 For T € Y*, define FT,F-'T € G* byFT (9) =T (Fo), F'T (6) =T (F'9)Lemma 11.6.4 F and F~ are both one to one, onto, and are inverses of each other.Proof: First note F and F~! are both linear. This follows directly from the definition.Suppose now FT = 0. Then FT (@) = T (F@) = 0 for all 6 € Y. But F and F—! map 4onto FY because if yw € Y, then as shown above, yw = F (F 1 (w)) . Therefore, T = 0 andso F is one to one. Similarly F—! is one to one. Now F~! (FT) (@) = (FT) (F-'@) =T (F (F~'(@))) =T¢@. Therefore, F~' oF (7) =T. Similarly, F oF ~' (1) =T. Thus bothF and F~! are one to one and onto and are inverses of each other as suggested by thenotation.Probably the most interesting things in Y* are functions of various kinds. The followinglemma will be useful in considering this situation.Definition 11.6.5 A function f defined on R” is in Lheevery ball B. Such functions are termed locally integrable.(R") if f 2 € L' (R") forLemma 11.6.6 /f f € L},.(R”) and Jpn fgdx =0 for all @ € C.(R"), then f =Oae.Proof: Let E be bounded and Lebesgue measurable. By regularity, there exists acompact set K, C E and an open set V; > E such that my (Vy \ Ky) < 27*. Let hy equal1 on Kx, vanish on Ve, and take values between 0 and 1. Then 4, converges to %¢ offNe UE, (V \ Kr), a set of measure zero. Hence, by the dominated convergence theorem,| f%eam, = lim | fhudimy =0.k- 00