32.3. FOURIER TRANSFORMS OF JUST ABOUT ANYTHING 1101

Proof:

Fψ (φ) ≡∫Rn

Fψ (t)φ (t)dt

=∫Rn

(1

)n/2 ∫Rn

e−it·xψ(x)dxφ (t)dt

=∫Rn

ψ(x)(

12π

)n/2 ∫Rn

e−it·xφ (t)dtdx

=∫Rn

ψ(x)Fφ (x)dx≡ ψ (Fφ)

The other claim is similar.Suppose now ψ (φ) = 0 for all φ ∈ G . Then∫

Rnψφdx = 0

for all φ ∈ G . Therefore, this is true for φ = ψ and so ψ = 0.This lemma suggests a way to define the Fourier transform of something in G ∗.

Definition 32.3.3 For T ∈ G ∗, define FT,F−1T ∈ G ∗ by

FT (φ)≡ T (Fφ) , F−1T (φ)≡ T(F−1

φ)

Lemma 32.3.4 F and F−1 are both one to one, onto, and are inverses of each other.

Proof: First note F and F−1 are both linear. This follows directly from the definition.Suppose now FT = 0. Then FT (φ) = T (Fφ) = 0 for all φ ∈ G . But F and F−1 map Gonto G because if ψ ∈ G , then as shown above, ψ = F

(F−1 (ψ)

). Therefore, T = 0 and

so F is one to one. Similarly F−1 is one to one. Now

F−1 (FT )(φ)≡ (FT )(F−1

φ)≡ T

(F(F−1 (φ)

))= T φ .

Therefore, F−1 ◦F (T ) = T. Similarly, F ◦F−1 (T ) = T. Thus both F and F−1 are one toone and onto and are inverses of each other as suggested by the notation.

Probably the most interesting things in G ∗ are functions of various kinds. The followinglemma will be useful in considering this situation.

Lemma 32.3.5 If f ∈ L1loc (Rn) and

∫Rn f φdx = 0 for all φ ∈Cc (Rn), then f = 0 a.e.

Proof: For r > 0, let

E ≡ {x : f (x)≥ r}, ER ≡ E ∩B(0,R).

Let Km be an increasing sequence of compact sets, and let Vm be a decreasing sequence ofopen sets satisfying

Km ⊆ ER ⊆Vm, mn (Vm)≤ mn (Km)+2−m,V1 ⊆ B(0,R) .

32.3. FOURIER TRANSFORMS OF JUST ABOUT ANYTHING 1101Proof:Fy(o) = [Fumo war1 n/2I (=) [ey (x)dxo (1) dt[.vi(z2) [ee metnaas(x)W(x)FO (x)dx = y (FO)The other claim is similar.Suppose now y(@) = 0 for all @ € Y. Thenywodx =0for all @ € Y. Therefore, this is true for @ = yandsoyw=0. BfThis lemma suggests a way to define the Fourier transform of something in ¥*.Definition 32.3.3 For T € Y*, define FT,F~'T € Y* byFT (9) =T (FQ), F'T(9)=T(F'9)Lemma 32.3.4 F and F~! are both one to one, onto, and are inverses of each other.Proof: First note F and F~! are both linear. This follows directly from the definition.Suppose now FT = 0. Then FT (@) = T (Fo) = 0 for all 6 € Y. But F and F~! map Yonto Y because if y € Y, then as shown above, y = F (F~'(w)). Therefore, T = 0 andso F is one to one. Similarly F~! is one to one. NowF-' (FT) (9) = (FT) (F-'9) =T (F(F'(9))) =T9.Therefore, F~! oF (T) =T. Similarly, Fo F~'(T) =T. Thus both F and F~! are one toone and onto and are inverses of each other as suggested by the notation. JProbably the most interesting things in Y* are functions of various kinds. The followinglemma will be useful in considering this situation.Lemma 32.3.5 If f € Lj,,.(R") and Jen fodx = 0 for all 9 € C.(R"), then f =O ae.Proof: For r > 0, letE = {x: f(x) >r}, Er=ENB(0,R).Let K,, be an increasing sequence of compact sets, and let V,,, be a decreasing sequence ofopen sets satisfyingKn © Er CVn, Mn (Vin) <M (Km) +27" Vi c B(0,R) .