1720 CHAPTER 54. FUNCTIONAL ANALYSIS APPLICATIONS

If α < β , then(−A)−β (H)⊆ (−A)−α (H) . (54.3.19)

If α ∈ (0,1) , then

(−A)−α =sin(πα)

π

∫∞

0λ−α (λ I−A)−1 dλ (54.3.20)

Proof: Consider 54.3.17.

(−A)−α (−A)−β ≡ 1Γ(α)Γ(β )

∫∞

0

∫∞

0tα−1sβ−1S (t + s)dsdt

Changing variables and using Fubini’s theorem which is justified because of the aboluteconvergence of the iterated integrals, which follows from Corollary 54.3.8, this becomes

1Γ(α)Γ(β )

∫∞

0

∫∞

ttα−1 (u− t)β−1 S (u)dudt

=1

Γ(α)Γ(β )

∫∞

0

∫ u

0tα−1 (u− t)β−1 S (u)dtdu

=1

Γ(α)Γ(β )

∫∞

0S (u)

∫ 1

0(ux)α−1 (u−ux)β−1 udxdu

=1

Γ(α)Γ(β )

(∫ 1

0xα−1 (1− x)β−1 dx

)∫∞

0S (u)uα+β−1du

=1

Γ(α)Γ(β )

(∫ 1

0xα−1 (1− x)β−1 dx

)Γ(α +β )(−A)−(α+β )

= (−A)−(α+β )

This proves the first part of the theorem.Consider 54.3.18. Since A is a closed operator, and approximating the integral with an

appropriate sequence of Riemann sums, (−A) can be taken inside the integral and so

(−A)1

Γ(1)

∫∞

0t1−1S (t)dt =

∫∞

0(−A)S (t)dt

=∫

0− d

dt(S (t))dt = S (0) = I.

Next let x ∈ D(−A) . Then

1Γ(1)

∫∞

0t1−1S (t)dt (−A)x =−

∫∞

0S (t)Axdt

=−∫

0AS (t)xdt =

∫∞

0− d

dt(S (t))dt = Ix

This shows that the integral in which α = 1 deserves to be called A−1 so the definition isnot bad notation. Also, by assumption, A−1 is one to one. Thus

(−A)−1 (−A)−1 x = 0

1720 CHAPTER 54. FUNCTIONAL ANALYSIS APPLICATIONSIf a < B, then(—A)~? (H) C (—A)~% (H). (54.3.19)If a € (0,1), then(—A)-* = sin(7a) | A~%(AI—A) | da (54.3.20)x JoProof: Consider 54.3.17.a, pd ope gp(—A)-“(—A) °= orp, [: 18-19 (14 s)dsdtChanging variables and using Fubini’s theorem which is justified because of the aboluteconvergence of the iterated integrals, which follows from Corollary 54.3.8, this becomesnar |, pow (u—1)P! $(u) dudt= rare h fo enn sea= _ | u (yx)! u—ux)P! udxdu= rare | 3) | °F (w—ux)P! udxd= rwre (fa (1 -)P a) [scour rau_ ot al _ Po} by _4\—-(@+B)- rare (I Oa) ax) T(a+B)( A)_ (—A) (+8)This proves the first part of the theorem.Consider 54.3.18. Since A is a closed operator, and approximating the integral with anappropriate sequence of Riemann sums, (—A) can be taken inside the integral and so(Aer [et isenar= ["(-ayswar= d= —_—— = =.[ -S soa =so)Next let x € D(—A). Then1ray 1'-!s()at(-A)x=— [ S(t) Axdt° =--[ AS(t)xdt= | —7 (S(t))at = IxThis shows that the integral in which @ = | deserves to be called A~! so the definition isnot bad notation. Also, by assumption, A! is one to one. Thus(-A)!(-ay!x=0